I’ve been wrestling lately with what I understand to be the Calvinistic proposition that our salvation rests purely upon God’s predestination of our fate, i.e., our being chosen by Him either for glory or destruction, according to Romans chapter 9. Having not studied Calvinism thoroughly, I allow that I may not be understanding (or representing) it properly. But I have understood enough, I think, to raise some questions. Not all of them can be covered in a blog post, but I would like to raise a few aspects of them and get some feedback.
What I cannot reconcile is that being chosen equates with being predestined. A major sticking point for me is that God created (by choice, of course) Adam and Eve with the ability to choose between good and evil, and called that “good.” Or, did He predestine them to choose evil, and call that “good?” I don’t think that this can be gleaned from Genesis 2:17: “but from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat [says the Lord], for in the day that you eat from it you shall surely die.” God must have made Adam and Eve with the capacity to obey, i.e., to choose to obey or to disobey, as well as to be deceived, as is written in Genesis 3:1-6.
Did mankind lose the ability to choose for himself between good and evil after the Fall? Was this part of the curse? Genesis 3 doesn’t say. In Genesis 6:5, however, the Lord observes that “every intent of the thoughts of [man’s] heart [is] only evil continually.” My question here is, does man’s depravity of heart necessarily mean that he lost his ability to choose between good and evil, or merely that he lost all desire (will) to choose good? So that, after God started over with Noah’s family and still their descendants continued man’s prideful legacy, He began showing His goodness to them in various ways so as to restore to their hearts some of that desire to choose good.
Perhaps if God has indeed continued to grant humankind the freedom, since the Fall, to choose good or evil, He also influences this choice to varying degrees as He, in His sovereignty, may. Perhaps it could be compared to the laws of nature – God has created (and sustains) the laws of nature but can (and does) suspend them, “supernaturally,” any time He chooses.
Now I realize that’s an oversimplification and all the serious theologians out there are rolling their eyes. But bear with me: there has to be a way to reconcile Romans 9 with passages that seem to indicate that we have a choice. For example:
Luke 13:3, 5 – Jesus’ words to those who reported to Him that Pilate had mingled the blood of the Galileans with their sacrifices, and asked whether these Galileans had perished because their sin was greater than other Galileans): “I tell you...unless you repent, you will all likewise perish.”
Jesus could merely have been speaking a truth, and could have qualified His statement by saying, “Unless God elects to call you so that you therefore repent, you will perish.” But He didn’t. His words seem to indicate that the persons to whom He was speaking had a choice in the matter. This is not to say that anyone can repent without being called by God, but surely someone can be called by God and choose not to repent, can they not? This would not mean that God is not sovereign, because He can change mens’ (and women’s) minds if He so chooses. But what if He chooses, in His sovereignty, to allow people choice in the matter of receiving Him?
John 3:14-18 – Jesus says, “And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of Man be lifted up; that whoever believes may in Him have eternal life. [Why didn’t He say here, “...that whoever is elected by God to receive His calling may have eternal life?”] For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish, but have eternal life. For God did not send the Son into the world to judge the world, but that the world should be saved through Him. He who believes in Him is not judged; he who does not believe has been judged already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.”
Acts 13:39-40 “...through Him (Jesus) everyone who believes is freed from all things, from which you could not be freed through the Law of Moses. Take heed, therefore, so that the think spoken of in the Prophets may not come upon you: ‘Behold, you scoffers, and marvel, and perish; for I am accomplishing a work in your days, a work which you will never believe, though someone should describe it to you.’” (emphasis added)
Why would anyone need to be exhorted to take heed, if they had no choice in the matter?
Colossians 1:21-23 "And although you were formerly alienated and hostile in mind, engaged in evil deeds, yet He has now reconciled you in His fleshly body through death, in order to present you before Him holy and blameless and beyond reproach -- if indeed you continue in the faith firmly established and steadfast, and not moved away from the hope of the gospel that you have heard, which was proclaimed in all creation under heaven..."
Hebrews 2:1-3 “For this reason we must pay much closer attention to what we have heard, lest we drift away from it. For if the work spoken through angels proved unalterable, and every transgression and disobedience receives a just recompense, how shall we escape if we neglect so great a salvation?” (emphasis added)
Hebrews 3:12-15 “Take care, brethren, lest there should be in any one of you an evil, unbelieving heart, in falling away from the living God. But encourage one another day after day, as long as it is still called ‘Today,’ lest any one of you be hardened by the deceitfulness of sin. For we have become partakers of Christ, if we hold fast the beginning of our assurance firm until the end; while it is said, ‘Today if you hear His voice, do not harden your hearts, as when they provoked Me.’” (emphasis added) (Those who came out of Egypt, led by Moses, hardened their hearts and were disobedient, which provoked the Lord.)
Titus 2:11-12 “For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to all men, instructing us to deny ungodliness and worldly desires and to live sensibly, righteously, and godly in the present age.” (emphasis added)
What need is there to be instructed not to deny ungodliness unless it is indeed an option that we may choose?
Here’s what C. S. Lewis had to say about the fall of man:
According to [the doctrine of the Fall], man is now a horror to God and to himself and a creature ill-adapted to the universe not because God made him so but because he has made himself so by the use of his free will. To my mind this is the sole function of the doctrine. It exists to guard against two sub-Christian theories of the origin of evil – Monism, according to which God Himself, being “above good and evil,” produces impartially the effects to which we give those two names, and Dualism, according to which God produces good, while some equal and independent Power produces evil.
Against both these views Christianity asserts that God is good; that He made all things good and for the sake of their goodness; that one of the good things He made, namely, the free will of rational creatures, by its very nature included the possibility of evil; and that creatures, availing themselves of this possibility, have become evil. Now this function – which is the only one I allow to the doctrine of the Fall – must be distinguished from two other functions which it is sometimes, perhaps, represented as performing, but which I reject. In the first place, I do not think the doctrine answers the question, “Was it better for God to create than not to create?”...Since I believe God to be good, I am sure that, if the question has a meaning, the answer must be Yes. But I doubt whether the question has any meaning: and even if it has, I am sure that the answer cannot be attained by the sort of value judgments which men can significantly make. In the second place, I do not think the doctrine of the Fall can be used to show that it is “just,” in terms of retributive justice, to punish individuals for the faults of their remote ancestors. Some forms of the doctrine seem to involve this; but I question whether any of them, as understood by its exponents, really meant it.
.....It would, no doubt, have been possible to God to remove by miracle the results of the first sin committed by a human being; but this would not have been much good unless He was prepared to remove the results of the second sin, and of the third, and so on forever. If the miracles ceased, then sooner or later we might have reached our present lamentable situation: if they did not, then a world, thus continually underpropped and corrected by Divine interference, would have been a world in which nothing important ever depended on human choice, and in which choice itself would soon cease from the certainly that one of the apparent alternatives before you would lead to no results and was therefore not really an alternative. (emphasis added) The Joyful Christian, pp. 48-50.
(This is an excerpt from one of his other books -- which one I don’t know but maybe someone will tell me)
Lewis is indicating here that the whole point of choice is that it bears consequence. That is the whole basis of morality. Here is the other problem I have in my (no doubt deficient) understanding of Calvinistically-understood predestination: if God is controlling the entire board, and man has been given no steam to run with on his own, how can he possibly be held accountable for his choices, the moral compunction for which lies in the result of a choice, i.e., it either promotes life, or death, spiritually-speaking? How can it be possible that the first two humans, Adam and Eve, had this type of choice, but, after making the wrong one, deprived the rest of humankind of the ability to choose for themselves forever?
It seems to me that we can still credit God with mercy, lovingkindness, longsuffering, and justice, and sovereignty if we allow that He allows us to choose between good and evil, the truth of which He Himself defines, except in some situations in which He may choose to override our choices. We can choose to be open to what He offers or to reject it. Otherwise, obedience has no meaning. If He can make us obey Him, as a general rule, then what point would there be in His demanding of us that which He chooses or denies for us anyway? Making us obey Him is not the same as causing us to obey Him. He can cause us to obey but we’ve still made the choice. If He makes us obey, though, then the choice is His, not ours.
We can choose to fear, or to act on our fear, or we can choose to put our fear aside and trust in God, based on a belief that He is Who He says He is and can do what He has demonstrated throughout history (including Biblical accounts) that He can do...can we not?