In Eternal Subordination of the Son: The Basics, Part III at CBMW's Gender Blog, Jeff Robinson writes,
Of this text [I Cor. 15:24-28] [Bruce A.] Ware writes: "The Son has his position over all of creation, bringing everything into subjection under his own feet, only because the Father has given all things to the Son. The Son, then, shows himself as the supreme victor and conqueror of all, including the conqueror of death itself, only because the Father has given him this highest of all callings and roles. In full acknowledgment of the Father's supremacy, the Son displays his submission to the Father by delivering up the now-conquered kingdom to the Father, and then, remarkably, by subjecting himself also to his Father. Though all of creation is subject to the Son, the Son himself is subject to the Father."
I agree with what Ware says except for the last two sentences. Does Christ fully acknowledge the Father's supremacy, and does He subject Himself to the Father? Does He have any other choice but to submit to the Father? Has He any other choice than to obey? I would say that, no, He doesn’t. There is no place in Scripture that I can find in which Jesus acknowledges the Father's supremacy or is said to submit to the Father, and saying that He obeyed does not mean that He could’ve not. But because He did, He was perfect, and accomplished God’s purposes – this is the significance of His obedience. He does the will of the Father because He is God, and because that is why the Father sent Him – that is His purpose. We could say that Christ is the Father's agent.
But, being that He is part of the Godhead, one part of the Triune God, being God, is His submission even an issue in terms of hierarchy or rank? In I Cor. 15:28 we read that the Son will be subjected. But Who will do this subjecting? It does not say that the Son Himself will subject Himself to the Father. And what is the purpose of the subjection? To show Who has supremacy over Whom? Or so that what was accomplished in Christ will be accommodated into the whole of the Godhead, “that God may be all in all”?
Others point to the fact that Christ is seated at God's right hand to indicate that God has final authority over Christ, or is higher in rank. I suppose that one could look at it this way, but for what purpose? I don't believe that the point is Who has more authority, power, choice, or rights than Whom, or Whose authority is superior to Whose, or Whose rank is higher. It's about agency, and purpose -- since there is one authority.
I think the point that God has given Christ all things, as Christ gives to us in turn, is to show the authority that Christ, and those whom He in turn gives authority, have: God’s authority – the final, only, and one authority. Subjection, in God’s hierarchy, appears ultimately not to put Christ and His redeemed eternally under, but to raise them up! According to Ephesians 1-2, God has lifted Christ up and seated Him at His right hand, and has also raised us up with Him and seated us in the heavenly places. The only things that will be put under Him (and us) forever are heavenly and earthly powers and authorities, and those things which are evil. The point of any hierarchy that exists in regards to God in spiritual matters is to show Who has the authority, and who (or what) doesn’t.
Therefore, Christ is not head of the husband to show any supremacy or to put him under Him, but to raise him up. Likewise, a husband is not head of his wife to show any supremacy or to put her under him, but to raise her up.
Rise up!
