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Headship and authority: a brief comment

I've gotten a bit discombobulated in my writing on gender issues; my life has been a bit out of whack lately and I've lost the organization of thought as to where I was going with it (and can't find a few of my books). No doubt I will get it back eventually, but in the meantime I want to respond to a post at CBMW on the true meaning of "headship" (part one).

The post includes an essay by Dr. John Mark Reynolds on how "headship" cannot mean "source" or "origin" because of the generally-understood meaning of the term "headship" at the time Paul was writing, credited to Plato's writings. [correction: What Dr. Reynolds said was not that "headship" cannot mean "source" or "origin," but that kephale as used by Paul cannot be said to definitely not mean "authority." My apologies for the misrepresentation.]

I have no problem accepting that "headship" means "seat of authority," especially religious authority. I have no reason not to, and indeed no desire not to. Where I think the discussion goes south is in the understanding of just what type this authority is, and what it looks like in real life.

As Ilona said, what's at stake is a "worldly," or fleshly, understanding of headship and authority as opposed to the one informed by the Word, whether it be the gospel, the Scriptures, or the Word from the mouth of a true believer, via the Holy Spirit.

What is the religious authority of a man?

The post establishes complementarianism upon male headship as taken from Ephesians 5:23-25: For the husband is the head of the wife even as Christ is the head of the church, his body, and is himself its Savior. 24 Now as the church submits to Christ, so also wives should submit in everything to their husbands. 25 Husbands, love your wives, as Christ loved the church and gave himself up for her.

But I think that the post's point might be better made by quoting, not Ephesians 5, but I Corinthians 11, where Paul reiterates that Christ is the head (religious authority) of every man, and the man is the head of woman (not specified as being in marriage), and God is the head of Christ. And I think that proper complementarity is better defined by Genesis 2:18-24, which Paul quotes from in Ephesians 5, than by Eph. 5 itself.

The husband is head of his wife as Christ is head of the church as I expounded upon in this post. We must understand what it means for Christ to be head of the church, and God the head of Christ, before we can understand what it means for a husband to be the head of his wife, or a man the head of a woman.

Towards the end of the passage in Ephesians 5, Paul refers to Genesis 2:24: For this cause a man shall leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave to his wife; an they shall become one flesh. In this account (Genesis 2:18-24), headship and submission are not mentioned. Vv. 22-24 (NASB): And the Lord God fashioned into a woman the rib which He had taken from the man, and brought her to the man. And the man said, "This is now bone of my bones, And flesh of my flesh; She shall be called Woman, Because she was taken out of Man." For this cause a man shall leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave to his wife; an they shall become one flesh. The idea of a husband ruling a wife does not appear until after the Fall (Gen. 3:16) and is not mentioned by Paul in his letters.

Complementarian arguments that I've read seem to claim that, in Ephesians 5, Paul reinterprets Genesis 2 in light of Christ, but, as I've argued before, I think this is inaccurate. Paul is not reinterpreting, but rather telling us what marriage in Christ really means, based on Genesis 2. He again tells us what headship means in I Cor. 11 (vv. 3, 7-9, 12), and it is again based on Genesis 2, not the other way around.

The complementarian relationship of man and woman, be it as husband and wife or not, is not based upon headship or authority, as I understand it, but on mutual need -- Gen. 2:18, 23-24, I Cor. 11:11-12. In this relationship, the man is the head, but his headship is as giver of his life, not as ruler-despot. His rule is one of complete sacrifice. His authority lies in this sacrifice and giving, not in anything else. This is his religious authority, the seat of which is found in Christ, as found in God the Father.

So, when a woman submits to such sacrifice and total giving, she is submitting to the Lord, as the man submits to the Lord via his sacrifice and giving. She simply completes the sentence: As God gave up His son, Christ, Christ gave up his life for the church, His body, and the man gives up his life for the woman, who is bone of his bone and flesh of his flesh. She submits to this as he submits to Christ, who submits to His Father in heaven.

Comments

I like what you are saying and I hope you repudiate the obnoxious notion that the statement that the "head is the divinest part and controls the body" is somehow anything other than tasteless and abusive as a comparison to headship in marriage.

The comment on gender blog about the Republic really knocked me off because there is an old guy at the beginning who is a resident alien in Athens and an arms producer. He has three sons. He engages in a discussion about old age and then he says he has to go and offer sacrifices. His name is Cephalus, which is derived from the word kephale in Greek.

But here is the thing - he is a real historic personage and that is his real name. He is not a religious authority of anything at all. Some philosopher has suggested that because he is old and traditional and still worships the old Greek gods, he is the character in the dialogue who represents the theme of 'religious authority.' But, that post was not representative of what the word means. It could also mean that he was the father of the clan. It could mean he began the dialogue.

However, this is the main point. Cephalus was a real person and that is his real name. So the post really misrepresented the use of the word in Plato.

I know this debate is not worth my time. Did you read my last post? I have given up being intellectual. All I care about is that the least number of people get hurt.

I do think you are doing a good job, Bonnie, in arguing your points. But you don't need to concede that kephale means religious authority in Plato.

Posted by: Suzanne McCarthy at January 16, 2008 1:54 AM

there is my url.

Posted by: Suzanne McCarthy at January 16, 2008 1:56 AM

Well said, as usual. I haven't always measured up to my part of this, I fear.

Posted by: Martin LaBar at January 16, 2008 7:22 AM

Very clear thinking, especially for one who might *feel* "a bit discombobulated". Underlining the mutuality of the submission is key, and I appreciate the way you have honed in on the fundamentals involved.

I think we are starting to get somewhere in establishing a workable understanding of these scriptures and the New Testament concept of authority as a whole.

Posted by: ilona at January 16, 2008 8:41 AM

What Dr. Reynolds said was not that "headship" cannot mean "source" or "origin," but that kephale as used by Paul cannot be said to definitely not mean "authority." My apologies for the misrepresentation.]

So Reynolds is guessing, Grudem is guessing, I am guessing and you are guessing. None of us is working from the meaning of the word kephale because we all acknowledge that a variety of meanings are available. Actually, I have read almost all Grudem's citations in context, within the broader Greek text, so at least I have something to go on. Here is an example,

This is Grudem's best piece of evidence,

the king of Egypt is called "head" of the nation

But this is what he is quoting, presumably,

"and, in a word, the whole family of the Ptolemies was exceedingly eminent and conspicuous above all other royal families, and among the Ptolemies, Philadelphus was the most illustrious; for all the rest put together scarcely did as many glorious and praiseworthy actions as this one king did by himself, being, as it were, the leader of the herd, and in a manner the head of all the kings." Philo Moses 2:30

Head then means that Philadelphus was the most famous of all the kings in his family before and after him. It has absolutely nothing whatsoever to do with authority.

Posted by: Suzanne McCarthy at January 17, 2008 11:04 PM

Suzanne,

In Appendix 1 Part C of RBMW, Grudem's argument against "source" as a meaning of kephale is that he is not the source of his wife, nor is any husband the source of his (the husband's) wife, stated with exclamation. He does not mention the fact that man is, indeed, the source of woman according to Genesis 2. Genesis 2 is referenced both in Ephesians 5 (Gen 2:24) and I Cor. 11.

I would substitute his use of "source" in his statement about Christ being the source of the husband and the husband being the source of the wife with the word "supplier," or, if one would rather not apply either of those meanings to Eph. 5:23 or I Cor. 11:3, it certainly seems plausible to do so with Colossians 1:18 ("source" or "origin"), Col. 2:19, and Eph. 4:16. Grudem does not mention these verses.

He does not explain the fact that Col. 1:18 reads: He [Christ] is also head of the body, the church; and He is the beginning, the first-born from the dead; so that He Himself might come to have first place in everything.

Neither does he mention that, according to John 1, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God...All things came into being by Him." Sounds like "origin" or "source" to me.

Further, he does not allow that kephale in Col. 2:19 and Eph. 4:16 may indeed indicate the anatomical head, as parts of the body (in reference to His body, the church), including joints and ligaments, are also mentioned. This would further (sorry) flesh out the meaning of kephale in these passages in reference to Christ.

Posted by: Bonnie at January 18, 2008 12:23 AM

Thanks for responding, Bonnie. I think that since woman is the mother it is incredibly important to respect the man as the father or the origin. It is about mutual respect for each other as life givers. It is a very pro-life interpretation because it acknowledges the father's role. What it does not do is make the male the leader, the one who has to have more wisdom, and make the decisions and set out goals for the wife. They are both equal as thinkers, as Christians who respond to God's call. The husband must treat the wife as a full equal, a fellow Christian. You would not see that in all the rhetoric about men ruling that comes up in some contexts.

Posted by: Suzanne at January 18, 2008 12:37 AM

Ms. McCarehy:
Phildelphus -sister lover, married to his sister, among others.
Sincerely,J R Dittbrenner

Posted by: J R Dittbrenner at January 20, 2008 6:13 AM

Yeah, I know he married his sister, Arsinoe, he was king of Egypt after all. Are you suggesting that that is the reason that Grudem would not cite his sources? Grudem just called him the king of Egypt. Hmm. Trying to make him seem more dignified, I guess.

Posted by: Sue at January 22, 2008 5:39 PM
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