The medieval monk and scholar Caesarius of Heisterbach tells of hearing a lay brother praying to Jesus: “Lord,” the man declared, “if Thou free me not from this temptation I will complain of Thee to Thy mother.”
Attempting to blackmail Christ is, of course, not the best way to seek absolution. But while blackmail is a sin, should it also be a crime? Libertarians, who claim it is a “victimless crime” would say no. As economics professor Walter Block explains,
There is something deeply paradoxical about laws that criminalize blackmail. How is it that, as Glanville Williams put it, "two things that taken separately are moral and legal whites together make a moral and legal black"? For the crime of blackmail involves the criminalization of two otherwise legal acts when they occur in combination- for example, the threat to disclose damaging information about another, and the offer to refrain from disclosing it for some valuable consideration.
Were Alfred to (threaten to) disclose damaging information concerning Bill's extramarital affairs, no offense recognized by law would be involved (even if there were something distasteful about such gossip); were Alfred to ask Bill for $5000, again there would be no contravention of any proper law (even if it displayed a degree of chutzpah). But were Alfred to threaten Bill that he would disclose information concerning Bill's extramarital affairs unless Bill paid him $5000, his two-part act would – under current laws-constitute the crime of blackmail. Why should the conjunction of such otherwise legal acts have an entirely different legal status?
Would a Christian libertarian also argue in favor decriminalizing the practice? The reason I ask is because one the main complaints I have with most libertarians is that they often work backwards from a grievance to the development of their core beliefs. Christians, on the other hand, must start with Biblical principles and work their way to a coherent political philosophy.
But a number of bloggers whose intellect and opinions I respect (particularly John Coleman, Josh Claybourn, and Vox Day) subscribe to some version of Christian libertarianism. While I don’t find the political theory to be a tenable option, I’m open to changing my opinion and so I'm eager to hear a defense of blackmail from a Biblical perspective.
Josh once claimed that, “At the root of Christian libertarianism is the biblical conviction that God grants men the freedom (never the permission) to sin.” But while the state doesn’t (nor should) criminalize every sin, some legitimate crimes also fall into the category of sin. How does the Christian libertarian decide what should be considered a crime? How can blackmail be considered a sin that should not also be classified as a crime? I'm interested in hearing how the abhorrent practice could be defended. In fact, I expect to have a reply no later than Monday. If not, then I just may have to post some of their dirty little secrets...
Update: Josh, Vox, and John all responded with thoughtful posts. I can't think or write as fast as they can so it will take me a few days to provide a counter-critique. While I’m not quite convinced, I am impressed by their reasoning and attempt to think Biblically on political issues. In that respect, my feelings about Christian libertarians are similar to my view of Catholics: I may admire their beliefs but I’m not yet ready to convert to their way of thinking.
Update 2: Mike from Blind Mind’s Eye weighs in with a defense.
Update 3: Jeremy Pierce, in his excellent rebuttal, includes this insightful paragraph:
This is a real conflict in libertarian political thought, because it seems that anyone's freedom will almost certainly end up restricting someone else's. So when you try to figure out which freedoms you're going to restrict, you have to decide it based on some factor other than the pure value of freedom, because freedom is what's creating the conflict. We need a choice between freedoms, in particular between the freedom of one person and the freedom of another. Libertarians argue against slavery on the grounds that it's an uncontroversial case of one person's freedom restricting another's, but isn't the same sort of thing going on in all kinds of other social relationships?